Free account: track your progress — Sign up free

WAEC Economics 2019 Objective Past Questions

All 50 questions from the West African Examinations Council (WAEC) Economics 2019 Objective paper, with the correct answer and a full explanation for each. Free, no signup needed.

Advertisement

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 1

The fundamental economic problem in every society is

  • A. the large number of the unemployed
  • B. inadequate supply of money
  • C. corruption and mismanagement
  • D. limited supply of productive resourcesCorrect

Explanation

Scarcity is the basic economic problem faced by every society, defined as the limitation in the supply of productive resources relative to unlimited wants.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 2

A point X inside a production possibility curve indicates that

  • A. resources are fully utilized
  • B. the country is poor
  • C. some resources are idleCorrect
  • D. resources are not available

Explanation

A point inside the PPC always indicates underutilization (idle/unemployed resources), while a point on the curve indicates optimal, fully efficient utilization of resources.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 3

The major employer of labour in developing countries is the

  • A. tertiary sector
  • B. secondary sector
  • C. primary sectorCorrect
  • D. industrial sector

Explanation

The primary sector (farming, hunting, fishing, etc.) is the major employer of labour in developing economies.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 4

The desire for profit is a major feature of

  • A. a traditional economy
  • B. a mixed economy
  • C. a market economyCorrect
  • D. a command economy

Explanation

The market (capitalist) economy focuses mainly on enriching providers of capital, so profit maximization is the main driving focus of a market economy.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 5

The wages of a group of workers in dollars are stated below: 40, 30, 70, 20, 60, 10, 10, 80, 30 and 10. What is the mean wage?

  • A. $35
  • B. $36Correct
  • C. $37
  • D. $38

Explanation

Mean = (40+30+70+20+60+10+10+80+30+10)/10 = 360/10 = $36.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 6

If the coefficient of price elasticity of demand of a product is zero, then its demand curve will be

  • A. parallel to the quantity axis
  • B. parallel to the price axisCorrect
  • C. negatively sloped
  • D. positively sloped

Explanation

A zero coefficient of price elasticity means the product is perfectly inelastic — quantity demanded does not change however price changes — giving a demand curve that runs parallel (vertical) to the price axis.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 7

If the demand function is Qd = – 0.5p + 20, calculate the quantity demanded when price is $15.00.

  • A. –$27.50
  • B. –$12.50
  • C. $12.50Correct
  • D. $27.50

Explanation

Qd = –0.5(15) + 20 = –7.5 + 20 = 12.5.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 8

The interest rate to control the money supply is a

  • A. control policy
  • B. monetary policyCorrect
  • C. developmental policy
  • D. fiscal policy

Explanation

Using interest rates to regulate the money supply is a classic tool of monetary policy, typically implemented by the central bank.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 9

If less of a good is bought as one's income increases, such good is

  • A. a normal good
  • B. a luxury
  • C. a necessity
  • D. an inferior goodCorrect

Explanation

An inferior good has a negative relationship with consumer income — as income rises, quantity demanded of the good falls, and vice versa.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 10

The demand for coffee and tea is

  • A. joint
  • B. competitiveCorrect
  • C. composite
  • D. derived

Explanation

Coffee and tea are competitive (substitute) goods: if the price of one rises, the quantity purchased of that good falls while the quantity purchased of the other rises.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 11

What effect will an increase in the supply of fish have on the meat market?

  • A. a fall in equilibrium price and quantityCorrect
  • B. An increase in equilibrium price and quantity
  • C. an increase in equilibrium price and quantity
  • D. Both equilibrium price and quantity remain unchanged

Explanation

Fish and meat are competitive (substitute) goods. If the supply of fish rises, its price falls, causing consumers to switch from meat to fish; meat sellers must then reduce their price too, resulting in a fall in the equilibrium price and quantity of meat.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 12

Which of the following factors is not a condition for a change in supply of a commodity?

  • A. improved technology
  • B. cost of production
  • C. the price of the commodityCorrect
  • D. Government tax policies

Explanation

A change in the price of the commodity itself causes a movement along the supply curve (change in quantity supplied), not a shift of the whole supply curve (change in supply), which is instead caused by technology, cost, or government policy.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 13

Supply of agricultural product is likely to be elastic in the A. intermediate period B. long run C. market period D. short-run

  • A. intermediate period
  • B. long runCorrect
  • C. market period
  • D. short-run

Explanation

In the long run, there are many farmers/producers able to adjust output significantly, so the supply of agricultural produce tends to be elastic.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 14

Two commodities X and Y are in joint supply when

  • A. X is a by-product of YCorrect
  • B. X and Y are produced by the same firm
  • C. increase in quantity of X leads to decrease in Y
  • D. X and Y cannot be produced in the same process

Explanation

A joint supply is a situation where two or more products are produced together from a single process, such that one product is a by-product of the other (e.g. beef and hide from cattle).

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 15

[See Table 1: Units of quantity consumed 0–5, Total utility –,10,15,17,18,18, Marginal Utility –,10,5,2,1,0] Table 1 above illustrates the law of

Diagram for question 15
  • A. diminishing returns
  • B. diminishing marginal productivity
  • C. diminishing marginal utilityCorrect
  • D. variable proportion

Explanation

As units consumed increase, marginal utility continually falls (10→5→2→1→0), illustrating the law of diminishing marginal utility.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 16

When the price of a good is above the equilibrium, there will be

  • A. a shortage
  • B. a surplusCorrect
  • C. unemployment
  • D. inflation

Explanation

When price is above equilibrium, suppliers are willing to supply more while consumers are willing to buy less, creating excess supply (a surplus) in the market.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 17

What happens when a minimum price is imposed in a market?

  • A. A shortage occurs
  • B. surplus occursCorrect
  • C. the market maintains its equilibrium
  • D. Many firms will close down

Explanation

A minimum price is normally set above the equilibrium price, which results in a surplus, since suppliers are willing to sell more than consumers are willing to buy at that higher price.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 18

When an increase in inputs leads to more than a proportionate increase in output, there is

  • A. decreasing returns to scale
  • B. increase in marginal product
  • C. increasing returns to scaleCorrect
  • D. constant returns to scale

Explanation

When output increases at a larger proportion than the increase in inputs, the firm is experiencing increasing returns to scale.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 19

The short-run in production is the time period when

  • A. techniques of production can easily be changed
  • B. all factors of production are variable
  • C. at least a factor is fixed while others are variableCorrect
  • D. variable factors cannot be changed

Explanation

The short-run is defined as a period of time in which at least one factor of production is fixed while other factors are variable.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 20

[See Table II: short-run cost of a firm — Quantity(Kg) 1,2,3; Fixed costs($) 750,750,750; Variable cost($) 200,560,900; Total cost($) 950,1310,P; Marginal cost($) –,360,Q; Average cost($) 950,655,550] Calculate the value of Q.

Diagram for question 20
  • A. $350
  • B. $340Correct
  • C. $360
  • D. $370

Explanation

Total cost at quantity 3 (P) = Fixed cost + Variable cost = 750+900 = $1650. Marginal cost (Q) = Total cost at Q3 − Total cost at Q2 = 1650 − 1310 = $340.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 21

A cost of production that is positively related to output is the

  • A. total fixed cost
  • B. average fixed cost
  • C. variable costCorrect
  • D. social cost

Explanation

Variable cost is directly related to the level of output: the higher the output produced, the higher the variable cost (and hence total cost) of production.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 22

In perfect competition, the average revenue curve of a firm is

  • A. below the marginal revenue curve
  • B. downward sloping
  • C. the marginal revenue curveCorrect
  • D. convex to the origin

Explanation

In perfect competition, price is fixed for the firm (a price taker), so the average revenue (AR) curve and marginal revenue (MR) curve coincide — AR is the same as the MR curve.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 23

Which of the following means of funding a business is a very reliable and cheap?

  • A. Bank loans
  • B. Loans from friends
  • C. Plough back profitsCorrect
  • D. Debentures

Explanation

Ploughing back profits (retained earnings) is the most reliable means of funding a business, since no external cost (interest) is involved.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 24

Government in most cases influences location of a firm to

  • A. discourage private investors
  • B. ensure equitable distributionCorrect
  • C. reduce cost of production
  • D. make the firms enjoy economies of scale

Explanation

Government often influences where firms locate in order to ensure a more equitable distribution of industry and economic activity/benefits among its citizens.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 25

Middlemen are made up of

  • A. manufacturers, wholesalers and consumer
  • B. manufacturers, wholesalers and retailers
  • C. wholesalers, retailers and hawkersCorrect
  • D. wholesalers, retailers and consumers

Explanation

Producers and final consumers themselves are never the middlemen. Middlemen are those who join the producers and consumers in the distribution chain — wholesalers, retailers and hawkers.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 26

The Malthusian theory of population was proved wrong because

  • A. the practice of subsistence farming was encouraged
  • B. developing countries adopted birth control method
  • C. new lands and new methods of production were discoveredCorrect
  • D. Malthus' view was seen as an exaggeration

Explanation

The Malthusian theory is considered myopic because it failed to forecast the advancement in technology and the discovery of new lands/methods of production, which have allowed food supply to keep pace with population growth.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 27

Human development can be improved if

  • A. banks give more loans to businessmen
  • B. large family sizes are encouraged
  • C. general education and training is encouragedCorrect
  • D. it is handled by the private sector only

Explanation

Human development is fundamentally about improving people's skills and abilities. Promoting general education and training directly improves the human development index.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 28

Agricultural productivity may be increased if

  • A. educational institutions are established in rural areas
  • B. commercial banks are established in rural areas
  • C. more infrastructural facilities are provided in rural areasCorrect
  • D. labour intensive method of agriculture is encouraged

Explanation

Providing more infrastructural facilities (roads, storage, irrigation, etc.) in rural areas improves agricultural productivity; it also helps check rural-urban migration by making rural facilities comparable to urban ones.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 29

A country is described as industrialized if

  • A. the contributions of industries to national income is highCorrect
  • B. traditional and modern sectors coexist
  • C. the country adopts import promotion strategy
  • D. primary industries dominate the economy

Explanation

A country is industrialized when its industries make a significant/high contribution to national income (GDP), reflecting a shift away from dependence on primary production alone.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 30

Which of the following is a major advantage of establishing a tomato-processing factory in a country?

  • A. local consumption will decrease
  • B. more unskilled labour will be employed
  • C. foreign exchange will be conservedCorrect
  • D. it will attract more tourists

Explanation

When a local industry produces what would otherwise be imported/exported, foreign exchange is conserved since the country relies less on foreign sources for that product.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 31

The total value of goods and services are produced within the borders of a country is

  • A. net national product
  • B. net domestic product
  • C. gross domestic productCorrect
  • D. gross national product

Explanation

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total value of all goods and services produced within a country's geographical/domestic territory.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 32

Which of the following items is not considered as a transfer payment?

  • A. pension pay
  • B. Government subsidy
  • C. students grants
  • D. Doctor's salaryCorrect

Explanation

A transfer payment is income received without a corresponding good or service being provided in return (e.g. pensions, subsidies, grants). A doctor's salary, by contrast, is income that is earned through work.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 33

Which of the following factors will not underestimate the national income?

  • A. rapid decrease in prices
  • B. increased subsistence production
  • C. practice of specialization of labour
  • D. increase in value of services not paid forCorrect

Explanation

Unpaid services are not captured in national income accounting, so increases in unpaid services worsen underestimation of national income; the WAEC key associates this specifically with option D.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 34

Which of the following is true of the value of money? It

  • A. is positively related to the price level
  • B. depends on the value people attach to it
  • C. is determined by the government
  • D. is inversely related to the price levelCorrect

Explanation

The value of money and the general price level move in opposite directions — as prices rise, the purchasing power (value) of money falls, and vice versa.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 35

The motive for holding money to meet unforeseen events is termed

  • A. precautionary demandCorrect
  • B. transactions demand
  • C. liquidity demand
  • D. speculative demand

Explanation

The precautionary motive for holding money is the desire to keep money on hand to meet unforeseen contingencies such as sickness, accidents, or emergencies.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 36

An increase in the prices of factor inputs may result in

  • A. demand-pull inflation
  • B. stagflation
  • C. open inflation
  • D. cost-push inflationCorrect

Explanation

When the prices of inputs (factors of production) rise, producers pass on the higher cost to the price of output — this is cost-push inflation.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 37

Insurance companies are similar to commercial banks in that they

  • A. compensate their customers for losses
  • B. act as lender of last resort
  • C. help in maintaining monetary stability in a nationCorrect
  • D. help in mobilizing savings for investment

Explanation

Both insurance companies and commercial banks are financial institutions that help mobilize and channel savings into productive investment, contributing to monetary/financial stability.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 38

What happens when the central bank increases the bank rate?

  • A. Amount of borrowing increases
  • B. Amount of borrowing decreasesCorrect
  • C. supply of money increases
  • D. commercial banks are not affected

Explanation

The bank rate is the rate the central bank charges commercial banks for loans. When it is increased, commercial banks reduce their borrowing (and pass on higher rates to the public), decreasing the overall amount of borrowing.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 39

Citizens are protected from government's arbitrariness in taxation by the canon of

  • A. elasticity
  • B. flexibilityCorrect
  • C. economy
  • D. certainty

Explanation

The canon of certainty ensures a taxpayer knows exactly what they are due to pay and when, protecting citizens from arbitrary/unpredictable taxation by government.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 40

In a period of unemployment and falling prices, governments should adopt a

  • A. zero-based budget
  • B. budget deficitCorrect
  • C. balanced budget
  • D. surplus budget

Explanation

Unemployment and falling prices indicate deflation. To revive the economy, government must pump more money in by spending more than it earns — i.e. running a deficit budget.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 41

In most developing countries, a large percentage of the labour force is engaged in

  • A. trading
  • B. mining
  • C. agricultureCorrect
  • D. manufacturing

Explanation

Agriculture remains the single biggest employer of labour in most developing economies.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 42

In most underdeveloped countries, development plans do not achieve their objective due to

  • A. poor coordination between local and national governments
  • B. exportation of more primary products
  • C. lack of educational institutions in those countriesCorrect
  • D. Urban-rural migration of citizens

Explanation

Excess rural-urban migration leads to over-dependence on city infrastructure and neglect of rural development, which undermines the achievement of national development plans.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 43

Balance of trade involves exchange of

  • A. goods onlyCorrect
  • B. services only
  • C. goods and services
  • D. goods and capital

Explanation

Balance of trade specifically measures the difference between a country's receipts from and payments for tangible goods (visible trade) only — not services.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 44

An improvement in a country's term of trade means that

  • A. the nation can export more services
  • B. nation's receipts on export is equal to payments on imports
  • C. value of her imports is lower than her exportsCorrect
  • D. visible exports is less than visible imports

Explanation

Terms of trade measures the rate at which a country's exports pay for its imports. An improvement means the country's exports have become more valuable relative to its imports.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 45

Devaluation of currency may not correct a balance of payments deficit if the demand for export is

  • A. perfectly inelastic
  • B. perfectly elasticCorrect
  • C. fairly elastic
  • D. unitary elastic

Explanation

If export demand is perfectly elastic, price is essentially fixed by the world market and a change in price (from devaluation) has no effect on quantity purchased, so devaluation cannot correct the deficit in this case.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 46

One measure for financing a country's balance of payments deficit is through

  • A. export diversification
  • B. import substitution
  • C. short term borrowing from IMFCorrect
  • D. internal borrowing from commercial banks

Explanation

Short-term borrowing from the IMF acts like an inflow of income that can be used directly to finance/correct a balance of payments deficit.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 47

The major achievement of the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is that it has

  • A. made capital more mobile
  • B. made possible the use of common currency
  • C. increased members allegiance to former colonial masters
  • D. widened the market for goods producedCorrect

Explanation

ECOWAS has widened the market for African (member states') products by promoting regional trade integration since its formation.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 48

Which of the following institutions is concerned with expanding developing countries' commodity trade?

  • A. World Trade Organization (WTO)
  • B. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
  • C. Economic Commission for Africa (ECA)Correct
  • D. African Development Bank (AFDB)

Explanation

The Economic Commission for Africa (ECA) is aimed at expanding commodity trade for African countries.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 49

Exploitation of forest resources becomes a major problem where

  • A. communities fight over ownershipCorrect
  • B. they are not renewed
  • C. they are neglected
  • D. the supply is fixed in the long-run

Explanation

When there is a land/forest ownership tussle among communities, it becomes difficult to exploit the forest, since the dispute creates fear/uncertainty among those willing to invest in exploiting the resource.

Economics 2019 Objective — Question 50

Natural resources that are renewable are found in the

  • A. mining sector
  • B. agricultural sector
  • C. traditional sectorCorrect
  • D. secondary sector

Explanation

Per the WAEC answer key, renewable natural resources are associated with the traditional sector (e.g. traditional/subsistence farming, forestry and fishing activities that regenerate naturally).

Advertisement

Sign up free to unlock

  • Score tracking
  • Practice history
  • Saved questions
  • Progress dashboard
  • Personalized sessions
  • Weak-topic breakdown

…and/or go further with premium services and No Ads.