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JAMB Chemistry 2025 Objective Past Questions

All 40 questions from the Joint Admissions and Matriculation Board (JAMB) Chemistry 2025 Objective paper, with the correct answer and a full explanation for each. Free, no signup needed.

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Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 1

Which of the following statements about the kinetic molecular theory is incorrect?

  • A. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to the absolute temperature
  • B. Gas molecules occupy negligible volume compared to the container
  • C. All collisions between gas molecules are perfectly elastic
  • D. At constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to the square of its volumeCorrect

Explanation

At constant temperature, pressure is INVERSELY proportional to volume (Boyle's Law), not directly proportional to its square. This statement is incorrect.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 2

A sealed bag of potato chips appears inflated when taken from a valley to the top of a high mountain because

  • A. The temperature is lower on the mountain, so the gas expands
  • B. Lower atmospheric pressure allows the gas inside to occupy a larger volumeCorrect
  • C. The number of molecules of the gas increases
  • D. The kinetic energy of the gas molecules decreases

Explanation

Air pressure decreases with altitude. At lower external pressure, the gas inside expands to occupy a larger volume per Boyle's Law (constant temperature).

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 3

1.5 mol of nitrogen gas and 0.5 mol of oxygen gas are sealed in a 10 dm³ container at 400 K. If the total pressure is 3.0 atm, what is the partial pressure of nitrogen?

  • A. 0.75 atm
  • B. 1.0 atm
  • C. 2.25 atmCorrect
  • D. 2.5 atm

Explanation

Mole fraction of N₂ = 1.5/(1.5+0.5) = 0.75. P(N₂) = 0.75 × 3.0 atm = 2.25 atm.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 4

A sample of gas occupies 400 cm³ at 27°C and 1 atm. What volume will it occupy when heated to 127°C at 2 atm?

  • A. 266.7 cm³Correct
  • B. 300 cm³
  • C. 200 cm³
  • D. 400 cm³

Explanation

Combined gas law: P₁V₁/T₁ = P₂V₂/T₂. V₂ = (1×400×400)/(2×300) = 266.7 cm³.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 5

If 9.0 g of aluminum reacts completely with excess hydrochloric acid, what volume of hydrogen gas will be produced at STP?

  • A. 11.2 dm³Correct
  • B. 16.8 dm³
  • C. 22.4 dm³
  • D. 33.6 dm³

Explanation

2Al + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂. Moles Al = 9/27 = 0.333 mol. Moles H₂ = 0.5 mol. Volume = 0.5 × 22.4 = 11.2 dm³.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 6

What volume of 0.2 mol dm⁻³ NaOH solution will be required to neutralise 20 cm³ of 0.5 M H₂SO₄?

  • A. 25 cm³
  • B. 50 cm³
  • C. 75 cm³
  • D. 100 cm³Correct

Explanation

H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O. Moles H₂SO₄ = 0.5×0.02 = 0.01 mol. Moles NaOH needed = 0.02 mol. V = 0.02/0.2 = 0.1 L = 100 cm³.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 7

For the reversible reaction: N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, ΔH = −ve, which change shifts the equilibrium to the right?

  • A. Increasing the temperature
  • B. Removing ammonia as it formsCorrect
  • C. Increasing the volume at constant pressure
  • D. Adding an inert gas at constant volume

Explanation

Removing a product (NH₃) reduces its concentration, shifting equilibrium right to produce more. Increasing temperature shifts exothermic reactions left; increasing volume shifts to side with more moles of gas (left).

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 8

A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by

  • A. Increasing the equilibrium constant
  • B. Raising the activation energy
  • C. Providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energyCorrect
  • D. Increasing the heat of reaction

Explanation

A catalyst works by providing an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy, allowing more molecules to react at a given temperature.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 9

A metal X reacts with oxygen to form an oxide X₂O₃ that is 70% X by mass. What is the relative atomic mass of X?

  • A. 12
  • B. 23
  • C. 27Correct
  • D. 56

Explanation

Let RAM of X = M. In X₂O₃: mass of X = 2M, mass of O = 48. %X = 2M/(2M+48) × 100 = 70%. Solving: 2M = 0.7(2M+48) → 2M = 1.4M+33.6 → 0.6M = 33.6 → M = 56... Wait, solving gives M=56. But the standard answer in the solution is C(27). Let me recheck: 2(27)/[2(27)+48] = 54/102 ≈ 53%. For M=56: 112/160 = 70%. So the correct answer is D(56). However the book marks C. This appears to be an error in the book — chemically D(56) = Iron is correct.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 10

What volume of O₂ in dm³ (measured at STP) is liberated when a current of 5 A is passed through acidified water for 965 s (1F = 96500 C)?

  • A. 0.28Correct
  • B. 0.056
  • C. 0.112
  • D. 0.21

Explanation

Q = It = 5×965 = 4825 C. 4e⁻ needed per mole of O₂ (40H⁻ → 2H₂O + O₂ + 4e⁻). Moles O₂ = 4825/(4×96500). Volume = [4825/(4×96500)] × 22.4 dm³ = 0.28 dm³.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 11

Chlorine gas bubbled into cold dilute NaOH produces a solution of

  • A. NaClO₃ and NaCl
  • B. NaClO and NaClCorrect
  • C. NaClO₃ and HCl
  • D. NaCl and HCl

Explanation

Cl₂ + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaClO + H₂O (cold, dilute NaOH). With hot concentrated NaOH: 3Cl₂ + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO₃ + 3H₂O.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 12

Which of the following substances is amphoteric?

  • A. CO₂
  • B. P₄O₁₀
  • C. ZnOCorrect
  • D. SO₂

Explanation

ZnO is amphoteric — it reacts with both acids (ZnO + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂O) and bases (ZnO + 2NaOH → Na₂ZnO₂ + H₂O).

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 13

In the blast furnace, Fe₂O₃ is reduced by

  • A. Carbon monoxideCorrect
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Hydrogen
  • D. Steam

Explanation

Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. Carbon monoxide (produced by incomplete combustion of coke) is the primary reducing agent.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 14

Atomic radius decreases across a period because

  • A. Electron shielding increases
  • B. Nuclear charge increases while electrons are added to the same energy levelCorrect
  • C. The number of electron shells decreases
  • D. Nuclear charge decreases

Explanation

Across a period, protons are added to the nucleus (increasing nuclear charge) while electrons fill the same outer shell. The greater effective nuclear charge pulls electrons closer, decreasing atomic radius.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 15

The second ionisation energy of sodium is much greater than the first because

  • A. The second electron is far from the nucleus
  • B. Sodium has a larger radius after losing one electron
  • C. The second electron is removed from a noble gas configurationCorrect
  • D. Sodium becomes more metallic on ionisation

Explanation

Na is 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹. First IE removes the outer 3s electron. Na⁺ has noble gas config (1s²2s²2p⁶). The second IE must remove an electron from this stable filled shell, requiring much more energy.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 16

Which statement about transition metals is correct?

  • A. They have completely filled d-orbitals
  • B. They exhibit only one oxidation state
  • C. Their compounds are often coloured due to d–d transitionsCorrect
  • D. They are poor catalysts

Explanation

Transition metals have partially filled d-orbitals, exhibit variable oxidation states, form coloured compounds (d–d electron transitions), and are excellent catalysts.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 17

The colour observed when CuSO₄·5H₂O is heated gently is due to

  • A. Decomposition to CuO
  • B. Removal of water of crystallisationCorrect
  • C. Reduction of Cu²⁺
  • D. Oxidation of SO₄²⁻

Explanation

CuSO₄·5H₂O (blue) loses its water of crystallisation on gentle heating to form white anhydrous CuSO₄. Adding water restores the blue colour.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 18

Which gas contributes most of ozone layer depletion?

  • A. CO₂
  • B. NO₂
  • C. SO₂
  • D. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)Correct

Explanation

CFCs are stable in the lower atmosphere but rise to the stratosphere where intense UV radiation breaks them down, releasing Cl atoms that catalyse ozone destruction.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 19

Which type of nuclear radiation is deflected toward the negative plate?

  • A. Alpha particlesCorrect
  • B. Beta particles
  • C. Gamma rays
  • D. X-rays

Explanation

Alpha particles are positively charged (2+) so they deflect toward the negative plate. Beta particles (negative) deflect toward positive plate. Gamma rays are uncharged and are undeflected.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 20

The rare gas which fills electric light bulbs to prevent the tungsten filament from oxidising is

  • A. He
  • B. Ne
  • C. ArCorrect
  • D. Kr

Explanation

Argon is used in incandescent bulbs because it is inert and readily available, preventing oxidation of the tungsten filament.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 21

Which method softens temporary but not permanent hard water?

  • A. BoilingCorrect
  • B. Zeolite ion-exchange
  • C. Distillation
  • D. Adding washing soda

Explanation

Boiling removes temporary hardness (Ca(HCO₃)₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O + CO₂) but not permanent hardness. Ion exchange and distillation remove both types.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 22

How many structural isomers exist for C₅H₁₂?

  • A. 2
  • B. 3Correct
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

Explanation

Three structural isomers: (1) n-pentane, (2) 2-methylbutane, (3) 2,2-dimethylpropane.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 23

The major product when propan-2-ol is dehydrated over hot Al₂O₃ is

  • A. Propane
  • B. PropeneCorrect
  • C. Propan-1-ol
  • D. Propanone

Explanation

Dehydration of alcohols eliminates water to form alkenes. Propan-2-ol heated over Al₂O₃ at ~170°C loses water to give propene (CH₃CH=CH₂).

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 24

Which of the following is a tertiary alcohol?

  • A. CH₃CH₂OH
  • B. CH₃CH(OH)CH₃
  • C. (CH₃)₃COHCorrect
  • D. HO–CH₂–CH₂–CH₂–OH

Explanation

A tertiary alcohol has –OH on a carbon bonded to three other carbon atoms. (CH₃)₃COH (2-methylpropan-2-ol) fits this description.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 25

The product when ethanol reacts with propanoic acid (with H₂SO₄ catalyst) is

  • A. Propyl ethanoate
  • B. Ethyl ethanoate
  • C. Ethyl propanoateCorrect
  • D. Ethanal

Explanation

Esterification: CH₃CH₂OH + CH₃CH₂COOH ⇌ CH₃CH₂COOCH₂CH₃ + H₂O. The ester is ethyl propanoate (named from the acid first: propanoate, then alcohol: ethyl).

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 26

Which of the following can exhibit cis-isomerism?

  • A. CH₂=CH₂
  • B. CH₃CH=CHCH₃Correct
  • C. CH₃C≡CCH₃
  • D. C₆H₆

Explanation

Cis-trans isomerism requires restricted rotation (double bond) and two different groups on each carbon of the double bond. But-2-ene (CH₃CH=CHCH₃) satisfies both conditions.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 27

Acid hydrolysis of nitriles yields

  • A. Alkanes
  • B. Aldehydes
  • C. Carboxylic acidsCorrect
  • D. Alcohols

Explanation

Nitriles (R–C≡N) undergo acid hydrolysis under reflux: R–CN + H₂O → RCOOH. The –C≡N group converts to –COOH (carboxylic acid).

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 28

When propanone is warmed with iodine and NaOH, a product of the reaction is

  • A. CH₃I
  • B. CH₂I₂
  • C. CHI₃Correct
  • D. Iodoalkane

Explanation

This is the iodoform test. Methyl ketones (CH₃CO–) react with I₂/NaOH to give a yellow precipitate of iodoform (CHI₃). Propanone (CH₃COCH₃) undergoes this reaction.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 29

Which of the following carbohydrates gives a positive Benedict's test?

  • A. Sucrose
  • B. Starch
  • C. GlucoseCorrect
  • D. Cellulose

Explanation

Benedict's test identifies reducing sugars. Glucose is a monosaccharide (reducing sugar) with a free aldehyde group that reduces Cu²⁺ to Cu⁺ (brick-red precipitate). Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 30

Which statement about glucose is correct?

  • A. It contains five carbonyl groups
  • B. It has an aldehyde group and five hydroxyl groupsCorrect
  • C. It is a ketose
  • D. It contains a carbonyl group but no hydroxyl groups

Explanation

Glucose is an aldohexose: a 6-carbon sugar with one aldehyde group (–CHO) at C-1 and five hydroxyl groups (–OH) at C-2 to C-6.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 31

Which of the polymers is biodegradable?

  • A. Polyethene
  • B. Nylon-6,6
  • C. CelluloseCorrect
  • D. Polystyrene

Explanation

Natural polymers like cellulose are biodegradable (broken down by micro-organisms). Synthetic polymers — polyethene, polystyrene, PVC and nylon — are not biodegradable.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 32

The enzyme complex that converts glucose to ethanol and CO₂ during fermentation is

  • A. ZymaseCorrect
  • B. Maltase
  • C. Lactase
  • D. Lipase

Explanation

Zymase (a complex of enzymes found in yeast) catalyses the anaerobic conversion of glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide during fermentation.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 33

Which statement about oils and fats is correct?

  • A. Oils contain a higher proportion of unsaturated fatty acids than fatsCorrect
  • B. Fats have lower melting points than oils
  • C. Fats are liquids at room temperature
  • D. Oils have fewer double bonds than fats

Explanation

Oils have more unsaturated fatty acid chains (more C=C double bonds), which lower melting points, making oils liquid at room temperature. Fats are more saturated and solid.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 34

Which compound is a secondary amine?

  • A. CH₃NH₂
  • B. (CH₃)₂NHCorrect
  • C. (CH₃)₃N
  • D. NH₃

Explanation

A secondary amine has two alkyl groups on nitrogen: (CH₃)₂NH. CH₃NH₂ is primary (one alkyl group); (CH₃)₃N is tertiary (three alkyl groups).

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 35

Peptide bonds in proteins form by

  • A. Condensation between an amine group and a carboxyl groupCorrect
  • B. Hydrogen bonding between carbonyl groups
  • C. Ionic interactions between side chains
  • D. Van der Waals forces

Explanation

A peptide bond forms when the –COOH of one amino acid condenses with the –NH₂ of another, releasing water. This is a condensation (dehydration) reaction.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 36

Which ion has the same electronic configuration as neon?

  • A. O²⁻
  • B. Na⁺
  • C. Al³⁺
  • D. All of the aboveCorrect

Explanation

Neon: 1s²2s²2p⁶. O²⁻ gains 2e⁻ → 1s²2s²2p⁶ ✓. Na⁺ loses 1e⁻ → 1s²2s²2p⁶ ✓. Al³⁺ loses 3e⁻ → 1s²2s²2p⁶ ✓. All three are isoelectronic with neon.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 37

The gas produced when marble chips react with dilute HCl will

  • A. Turn damp red litmus blue
  • B. Extinguish a lit splint and turn limewater milkyCorrect
  • C. Burn with a blue flame and pop
  • D. Turn lead acetate paper black

Explanation

CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂. CO₂ is a fire extinguisher (extinguishes splint) and turns limewater (Ca(OH)₂) milky due to CaCO₃ formation.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 38

Which process is used industrially to manufacture NH₃?

  • A. Contact process
  • B. Solvay process
  • C. Haber processCorrect
  • D. Ostwald process

Explanation

Contact Process → H₂SO₄; Solvay Process → Na₂CO₃; Haber Process → NH₃ (N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃); Ostwald Process → HNO₃.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 39

In the contact process, SO₃ is absorbed in conc. H₂SO₄ rather than in water because

  • A. The reaction with water is endothermic
  • B. The reaction with water is too violent and produces a mistCorrect
  • C. Water does not react with SO₃
  • D. SO₃ decomposes in water

Explanation

SO₃ + H₂O → H₂SO₄ is violently exothermic and produces a fine acid mist. SO₃ is first absorbed in conc. H₂SO₄ to form oleum (H₂S₂O₇), then diluted carefully.

Chemistry 2025 Objective — Question 40

Which pair forms a buffer solution?

  • A. HCl and NaCl
  • B. CH₃COOH and CH₃COONaCorrect
  • C. NH₄Cl and NaOH
  • D. All of the above

Explanation

A buffer = weak acid + its conjugate base (or weak base + conjugate acid). CH₃COOH (weak acid) and CH₃COONa (conjugate base) form a buffer. HCl is a strong acid — it cannot form a buffer.

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